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questions and Answers

31 May

1. Load Testing Tools  (Per. Testing)

a)    reduces the time spent by the testers

b)    reduces the resources spent (hardware)

c)    mostly used in web testing

d)   all  of the above

 

2. Test coverage analysis is the process of  (Testing concepts)

a)   Creating additional test cases to increase coverage

b)    Finding areas of program exercised by the test cases

c)    Determining a quantitative measure of code coverage, which is a direct measure of quality.

d)    All of the above.

3. Critical in Web Testing (Testing concepts)

a)    Performance and Functionality

b)    Functionality and usability

c)   Usability and Performance

d)    None of the above

4. Class testing  (Testing concepts)

a)   require a driver to test

b)    no need of instances of other classes

c)    no need to test the transitions

d)    all of the above.

5. Defect Tracking  (Defect Mgmt)

a)    is the communication channel between test team and development team

b)    is the communication channel between testing team and the rest of the team

c)    is the communication channel between the testing team and end users

d)   all of the above

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6. Essential  Testing Skills are  (Test Mgmt)

a)    Test Planning, Risk Management, Tool Usage, Test Execution, Defect Management

b)    Test Planning, Tool Usage, Test Execution, Defect Management, Test Measurement

c)   Test Planning, Tool Usage, Test Execution, Defect Management

d)    Test Planning, Tool Usage, Test Execution, Defect Management, Test case Design

7. Testing across different languages is called  (Testing concepts)

a)    Linguistic Testing

b)   Localization Testing

c)    Both a and b

d)    None of the above.

8. Hierarchical System  (Testing concepts)

a)    several levels of component that includes objects and classes

b)    several levels of component that includes objects, classes, systems

c)    several levels of component that includes, foundation components, systems

d)   none of the above.

9. Hybrid Testing (Testing concepts)

a)    combination of one or more testing techniques

b)   Combination of top-down and bottom-up testing

c)    Both a and b

d)    None of the above.

White Box Testing (Testing concepts)

a)    same as glass box  testing

b)    same as clear box testing

c)   both a and b

d)    none of the above.

Build Verification Test (Testing concepts)

a)    same as smoke test

b)    done after each build to make sure that the build doesn’t contain major errors

c)   both a and b

d)    None of the above.

Content Testing  (Testing concepts)

a)    Similar to proof reading

b)    Widely used in web testing

c)    Part of usability Testing

d)   All of the above

Decision Coverage.  (Testing concepts)

a)    testing the boolean expressions which are not in control structures

b)   entire expression is considered as boolean expression irrespective of logical-and and logical-or operators

c)    coverage except switch-statement cases, exception handlers

d)    all of the above.

Branch Coverage  (Testing concepts)

a)    another name for decision coverage

b)    another name for all-edges coverage

c)    another name for basic path coverage

d)   all the above

The following example is a 

 

if (condition1 && (condition2 || function1()))

    statement1;

else

    statement2; (Testing concepts)

a)   Decision coverage

b)    Condition coverage

c)    Statement coverage

d)    Path Coverage

16.Test cases need to be written for (Testing Artifacts)

a)    invalid and unexpected conditions

b)    valid and expected conditions

c)   both a and b

d)    none of these

17.Desk Checking (Testing concepts)

a)    same as code walkthrough

b)    same as code inspection

c)   verification of code by the developers

d)    none of the above.

18.Path coverage includes (Testing Artifacts)

a)    statement coverage

b)    condition coverage

c)   decision coverage

d)    none of these

19.Tools usage (Automation)

a)    very helpful in regression testing

b)    saves time

c)    helpful in simulating Users

d)   all of the above.

20.Which is a true prevention  mechanism  (Quality)

a)    verifying that the executable contains a defect

b)    detecting that the executable contains a defect

c)    Validating that the specified requirements are right, complete, achievable, reasonable, testable

d)   Verifying that the specified requirements are right, complete, achievable, reasonable, testable

21.Objective of review meeting is (Quality)

a)   to identify problems with design

b)    to solve the problems with design

c)    both a and b

d)    none of the above.

22.The benefits of glass box testing are (Testing concepts)

a)    Focused Testing, Testing coverage, control flow

b)    Data integrity, Internal boundaries, algorithm specific testing

c)   Both a and b

d)    Either a or b

23.Structural Testing (Testing concepts)

a)    same as black box testing

b)   same as white box testing

c)    same as functional testing

d)    none of the above.

24.Characteristic of a good test (Testing Artifacts)

a)    reasonable probability of catching an error and can be redundant

b)    It is not simple or too complex

c)   reasonable probability of catching an error and cannot be redundant

d)    It is either simple or too complex

25.Find the Equivalence class for the following test case (Testing Artifacts)

Enter a number to test the validity of being accepting the numbers between 1 and 99

a)    All numbers < 1

b)    All numbers > 99

c)    Number = 0

d)   All numbers between 1 and 99

Q. 1: Testing should be stopped when:

A. All the planned tests have been run

B. Time has run out

C. All faults have been fixed correctly

D. Both A. and C.

E. I depends on the risks for the system being tested

Q. 2: Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for

integration testing in the small?

A. To ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately

B. To ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks

C. To specify which modules to combine when and how many at once

D. To ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team

E. To specify how the software should be divided into modules

Q. 3: Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:

A. Status accounting of configuration items

B. Auditing conformance to ISO9001

C. Identification of test versions

D. Record of changes to documentation over time

E. controlled library access

Q. 4:Regression testing should be performed:

v) Every week

w) After the software has changed

x) As often as possible

y) When the environment has changed

z) Wwhen the project manager says

A. v & w are true, x – z are false

B. w, x & y are true, v & z are false

C. w & y are true, v, x & z are false

D. w is true, v, x y and z are false

E. All of the above are true

Q. 5: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is

called:

A. A dynamic analysis tool

B. A test execution tool

C. A debugging tool

D. A test management tool

E. A configuration management tool

Q. 6: The cost of fixing a fault:

A. Is not important

B. Increases as we move the product towards live use

C. Decreases as we move the product towards live use

D. Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design

E. Can never be determined

Q. 7: Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999

inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only

valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:

A. 1000, 5000, 99999

B. 9999, 50000, 100000

C. 10000, 50000, 99999

D. 10000, 99999

E. 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000

Q. 8: When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected

behavior, this is called:

A. An error

B. A fault

C. A failure

D. A defect

E. A mistake

Q. 9: Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review

processes:

  1. Led by author
  2. Undocumented
  3. No management participation
  4. Led by a trained moderator or leader
  5. Uses entry exit criteria

s) Inspection

t) Peer review

u) Informal review

v) Walkthrough

A. s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1

B. s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1

C. s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4

D. s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2

E. s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3

Q. 10: Given the following:

Switch PC on

Start “outlook”

IF outlook appears THEN

Send an email

Close outlook

A. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage

B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

C. 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage

D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

E. 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

Q. 11: Test managers should not:

A. Report on deviations from the project plan

B. Sign the system off for release

C. Re-allocate resource to meet original plans

D. Rise incidents on faults that they have found

E. Provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

Q. 12: Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:

A. Business process-based testing

B. Performance, load and stress testing

C. Requirements-based testing

D. Usability testing

E. Top-down integration testing

Q. 13: When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:

A. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool

B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool

C. The independent testing team

D. The managers to see what projects it should be used in

E. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

Q. 14: Which of the following is not part of performance testing:

A. Measuring response time

B. Measuring transaction rates

C. Recovery testing

D. Simulating many users

E. Generating many transactions

Q. 15: What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:

A. To know when a specific test has finished its execution

B. To ensure that the test case specification is complete

C. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs

D. To know when test planning is complete

E. To plan when to stop testing

Q. 16: Given the following code, which is true:

IF A > B THEN

C = A – B

ELSE

C = A + B

ENDIF

Read D

IF C = D Then

Print “Error”

ENDIF

A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

B. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

C. 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage

D. 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

E. 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

Q. 17: Unreachable code would best be found using:

A. Code reviews

B. Code inspections

C. A coverage tool

D. A test management tool

E. A static analysis tool

Q. 18: What information need not be included in a test incident report:

A. How to fix the fault

B. How to reproduce the fault

C. Test environment details

D. Severity, priority

E. The actual and expected outcomes

Q. 19: Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test

Documentation Standard:

A. Test items (i.e. software versions)

B. What is not to be tested

C. Test environments

D. Quality plans

E. Schedules and deadlines

Q. 20: IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:

A. Test items

B. Test deliverables

C. Test tasks

D. Test environment

E. Test specification

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Q. 21: Functional testing is mostly

A. Validation techniques

B. Verification techniques

C. Both of the above

D. None of the above

Q. 22: Branch Coverage

A. Another name for decision coverage

B. Another name for all-edges coverage

C. Another name for basic path coverage

D. All the above

Q. 23: The _________ Is the activity where general testing objectives are transformed

into tangible test conditions and test designs

A. Testing Planning

B. Test Control

C. Test analysis and design

D. Test implementation

Q. 24: Integration testing where no incremental testing takes place prior to all the

system’s components being combined to form the system.

A. System testing

B. Component Testing

C. Incremental Testing

D. Big bang testing

Q. 25: A test case design technique for a component in which test cases are designed

to execute statements is called as?

A. State transition Testing

B. Static Testing

C. Transition testing

D. Statement testing

Q. 26: Who should have technical and Business background.

A. Moderator

B. Author

C. Reviewer

D. Recorder

Q. 27: A test plan defines

A. What is selected for testing

B. Objectives and results

C. Expected results

D. Targets and misses

Q. 28: Component integration testing can be done

A. Before Integration testing

B. After unit testing

C. After component testing

D. After system testing

Q. 29: Test basis documentation is analyzed in which phase of testing

A. Test Analysis

B. Test Design

C. Test Execution

D. Test Planning

Q. 30: Which one is not the task of test leader?

A. Coordinate the test strategy and plan with project managers and others

B. Decide about the implementation of the test environment

C. Write test summary reports

D. Review and contribute to test plans

Q. 31: if (condition1 && (condition2 function1()))

statement1;

else

statement2;

A. Decision coverage

B. Condition coverage

C. Statement coverage

D. Path Coverage

Q. 32: _________ reviews are often held with just the programmer who wrote the

code and one or two other programmers or testers.

A. Formal Reviews

B. Peer Reviews

C. Semi Formal Reviews

D. All of the above

Q. 33: In ________ testing test cases i.e input to the software are created based on

the specifications languages

A. State Transition Testing

B. Random Testing

C. Syntax Testing

D. Penetration testing

Q. 34: White Box Testing

A. Same as glass box testing

B. Same as clear box testing

C. Both A. and B.

D. None of the above.

Q. 35: Verification activities during design stages are

A. Reviewing and Inspecting

B. Inspecting and Testing

C. Reviewing and Testing

D. Reviewing, Inspecting and Testing.

Q. 36: Equivalence partitioning consists of various activities:

A. Ensure that test cases test each input and output equivalence class at least once

B. Identify all inputs and all outputs

C. Identify equivalence classes for each input

D. All of the above

Q. 37: Static Analysis

A. Same as static testing

B. Done by the developers

C. Both A. and B

D. None of the above

Q. 38: Size of a project is defined in terms of all the following except

A. Person days

B. Person hours

C. Calendar months

D. None of the above

Q. 39: Testing responsibilities:

Tester 1 – Verify that the program is able to display images clearly on all 10 of the monitors

in the lab

Tester 2 – Make sure the program instructions are easy to use Security concerns are

important for which type of applications

Tester 3 – Verify that the calculation module works correctly by using both scripts and ad

hoc testing. Which term is used to refer to the testing that is performed by

Tester 3 in the above scenario?

A. Unit testing

B. Algorithm specific testing

C. Compatibility testing

D. Black box testing

Q. 40: Objective of review meeting is

A. To identify problems with design

B. To solve the problems with design

C. Both A. and B

D. None of the above.

Q. 41: Which is not the fundamental test process

A. Planning and control

B. Test closure activities

C. Analysis and design

D. None

Q. 42: The ________ and ________ are used within individual workbenches to produce

the right output products.

A. Tools and techniques

B. Procedures and standards

C. Processes and walkthroughs

D. Reviews and update

Q. 43: Which is not the software characteristics

A. Reliability

B. Usability

C. Scalability

D. Maintainability

Q. 44: The principle of Cyclomatic complexity, considering L as edges or links, N as

nodes, P as independent paths

A. L-N +2P

B. N-L +2P

C. N-L +P

D. N-L +P

Q. 45: FPA is used to

A. To measure the functional requirements of the project

B. To measure the size of the functionality of an Information system

C. To measure the functional testing effort

D. To measure the functional flow

Q. 46: A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met

A. SDLC

B. Project Plan

C. Policy

D. Procedure

Q. 47: Which is not a test Oracle

A. The existing system (For a bench mark)

B. The code

C. Individual’s knowledge

D. User manual

Q. 48: PDCA is known as

A. Plan, Do, Check, Act

B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act

C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act

D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept

Q. 49: Which is the non-functional testing

A. Performance testing

B. Unit testing

C. Regression testing

D. Sanity testing

Q. 50: A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:

i. Test Items

ii. Test Scripts

iii. Test Deliverables

iv. Responsibilities

A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false

B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false

C. ii,iii are true and i and iv are false

D. i,ii are false and iii , iv are true

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Answers:

Q. 1 E

Q. 2 C

Q. 3 B

Q. 4 C

Q. 5 E

Q. 6 B

Q. 7 C

Q. 8 C

Q. 9 B

Q. 10 B

Q. 11 C

Q. 12 E

Q. 13 A

Q. 14 C

Q. 15 E

Q. 16 B

Q. 17 A

Q. 18 A

Q. 19 D

Q. 20 E

Q. 21 A

Q. 22 A

Q. 23 C

Q. 24 D

Q. 25 D

Q. 26 C

Q. 27 B

Q. 28 C

Q. 29 A

Q. 30 D

Q. 31 B

Q. 32 B

Q. 33 C

Q. 34 A

Q. 35 A

Q. 36 A

Q. 37 C

Q. 38 C

Q. 39 D

Q. 40 C

Q. 41 D

Q. 42 B

Q. 43 C

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Q. 1: Poor software characteristics are

A. Only Project risks

B. Only Product risks

C. Project risks and Product risks

D. Project risks or Product risks

Q. 2: System testing should investigate

A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements

B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements

C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements

D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements

Q. 3: Contract and regulation testing is a part of

A. System testing

B. Acceptance testing

C. Integration testing

D. Smoke testing

Q. 4: Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review

A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off

B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework

C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up

D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off

Q. 5: Which is not the testing objectives

A. Finding defects

B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information

C. Preventing defects.

D. Debugging defects

Q. 6: Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of

the following costs of quality?

A. External failure

B. Internal failure

C. Appraisal

D. Prevention

Q. 7: Which is not the project risks

A. Supplier issues

B. Organization factors

C. Technical issues

D. Error-prone software delivered

Q. 8: Bug life cycle

A. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed

B. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed

C. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed

D. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed

Q. 9: Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that

were identified during the review meeting

A. Moderator

B. Scribe

C. Reviewers

D. Author

Q. 10: ‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using

BVA which is the appropriate one

A. 0,1,2,99

B. 1, 99, 100, 98

C. 0, 1, 99, 100

D. –1, 0, 1, 99

Q. 11: Which is not a testing principle

A. Early testing

B. Defect clustering

C. Pesticide paradox

D. Exhaustive testing

Q. 12: A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule.

The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip

the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for his product. Which

of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule?

A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.

B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.

C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.

D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel.

Q. 13: The ___________ Testing will be performed by the people at client own

locations

A. Alpha testing

B. Field testing

C. Performance testing

D. System testing

Q. 14: Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality

A. ISO 1926

B. ISO 829

C. ISO 1012

D. ISO 1028

Q. 15: Which is not a black box testing technique

A. Equivalence partition

B. Decision tables

C. Transaction diagrams

D. Decision testing

Q. 16: Find the mismatch

A. Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases

B. Test design tools – Generate test inputs

C. Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be traceable

D. Configuration management tools – Check for consistence

Q. 17: Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which

phase:-

A. Test Analysis and Design

B. Test Planning and control

C. Test Implementation and execution

D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Q. 18: Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases

are:

A. Designed by persons who write the software under test

B. Designed by a person from a different section

C. Designed by a person from a different organization

D. Designed by another person

Q. 19: Test planning has which of the following major tasks?

i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.

ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and

interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware)

iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface)

iv. Determining the exit criteria.

A. i,ii,iv are true and iii is false

B. i,,iv are true and ii is false

C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false

D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

Q. 20: Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account :-

i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk

ii. Project constraints such as time and budget

iii. Size of Testing Team

iv. Size of the Development Team

A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false

B. i,,iv are true and ii is false

C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false

D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

Q. 21: Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing:

A. The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.

B. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.

C. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to

do.

D. Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.

Q. 22: Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage:

Read P

Read Q

If p+q > 100 then

Print “Large”

End if

If p > 50 then

Print “pLarge”

End if

A. Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2

B. Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2

C. Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2

D. Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2

Q. 23: Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life

cycle:

i. Hi-level design a Unit tests

ii. Code b Acceptance tests

iii. Low-level design c System tests

iv. Business requirements d Integration tests

A. i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b

B. i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b

C. i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c

D. i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b

Q. 24: Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities?

i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered

ii. Defect report analysis.

iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.

iv. Analyzing lessons.

A. i , ii , iv are true and iii is false

B. i , ii , iii are true and iv is false

C. i , iii , iv are true and ii is false

D. All of above are true

Q. 25: Which of the following is NOT part of a high level test plan?

A. Functions not to be tested.

B. Environmental requirements.

C. Analysis of Specifications.

D. Entry and Exit criteria.

Q. 26: If a candidate is given an exam of 40 questions, should get 25 marks to pass

(61%) and should get 80% for distinction, what is equivalence class.

A. 23, 24, 25

B. 0, 12, 25

C. 30, 36, 39

D. 32,37,40

Q. 27: Which of the following statements is true of static analysis:

A. Compiling code is not a form of static analysis.

B. Static analysis need not be performed before imperative code is executed.

C. Static analysis can find faults that are hard to find with dynamic testing.

D. Extensive statistic analysis will not be needed if white- Box testing is to be performed.

Q. 28: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has $4000 of

salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10% The next $28000 is taxed at 22% Any

further amount is taxed at 40%

Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?

A. $5800; $28000; $32000

B. $0; $200; $4200

C. $5200; $5500; $28000

D. $28001; $32000; $35000

Q. 29: Cost of the reviews will not include.

A. Review process itself

B. Metrics analysis

C. Tool support.

D. Process improvement.

Q. 30: Regression testing always involves

A. Testing whether a known software fault been fixed.

B. Executing a large number of different tests.

C. Testing whether modifications have introduced adverse side effects.

D. Using a test automation tool.

Q. 31: Given the following state transition table Which of the test cases below will cover

the following series of state transitions? S1 SO S1 S2 SO

Exhibit:

A. D, A, B, C.

B. A, B, C, D.

C. D, A, B.

D. A, B, C.

Q. 32: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration

Management?:

i) Identifying the version of software under test.

ii) Controlling the version of testware items.

iii) Developing new testware items.

iv) Tracking changes to testware items.

v) Analyzing the need for new testware items.

A. ii, iv and v.

B. ii, iii and iv.i,

C. i, ii and iv.

D. i, iii and v.

Q. 33: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?

A. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks.

B. Initiating corrective actions.

C. Monitoring progress and test coverage.

D. Measuring and analyzing results.

Q. 34: Which of the following BEST describes the difference between an inspection and a

walkthrough?

A. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by the author.

B. An inspection is led by a moderator and a walkthrough is led by the author.

C. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by a trained moderator.

D. A walkthrough is led by the author. The author is not present during inspections.

Q. 35: Where may functional testing be performed?

A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.

B. At all test levels.

C. At all levels above integration testing.

D. At the acceptance testing level only.

Q.36: What is the MAIN objective when reviewing a software deliverable?

A. To identify potential application failures by use of a test specification.

B. To identify defects in any software work product.

C. To identify spelling mistakes in a requirements specification.

D. To identify standards inconsistencies in the code.

Q. 37: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities?

A. Developers.

B. Analysts.

C. Testers.

D. Incident Managers.

Q. 38: Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report?

A. The name and/or organizational position of the person raising the problem.

B. Version of the Software Under Test.

C. Suggestions as to how to fix the problem.

D. Actual and expected results.

Q. 39: Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?

A. Test case specification.

B. Test design specification.

C. Test procedure specification.

D. Test results.

Q. 40: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which

statement BEST details those for developers

i) Performance testing tools.

ii) Coverage measurement tools.

iii) Test comparators.

iv) Dynamic analysis tools.

v) Incident management tools.

A. i, iii. and iv. are more for developers.

B. ii. and iv. are more for developers.

C. ii, iii. and iv. are more for developers.

D. ii. and iii. are more for developers.

Q. 41: Which of the following is correct?

A. Impact analysis assesses the effect on the system of a defect found in regression testing.

B. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a new person joining the regression test team.

C. Impact analysis assesses whether or not a defect found in regression testing has been

fixed correctly.

D. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to determine how much

regression testing to do.

Q. 42: As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?

A. Test planning.

B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.

C. Test closure.

D. Test control.

Q. 43: Given the following state transition diagram Which of the following series of

state transitions contains an INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in the system

design?

Exhibit:

A. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Checkout Pay Logout.

B. Login Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.

C. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Logout.

D. Login Browse Basket Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.

Q. 44: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test implementation and execution?

A. Measuring and analyzing results.

B. Reporting discrepancies as incidents.

C. Identifying test conditions or test requirements.

D. Assessing if more tests are needed.

kevalshah.in

Answers:

Q. 1 B

Q. 2 C

Q. 3 B

Q. 4 C

Q. 5 D

Q. 6 A

Q. 7 D

Q. 8 A

Q. 9 B

Q. 10 C

Q. 11 D

Q. 12 A

Q. 13 B

Q. 14 A

Q. 15 D

Q. 16 D

Q. 17 A

Q. 18 C

Q. 19 A

Q. 20 C

Q. 21 D

Q. 22 C

Q. 23 D

Q. 24 C

Q. 25 C

Q. 26 D

Q. 27 A

Q. 28 A

Q. 29 C

Q. 30 C

Q. 31 A

Q. 32 C

Q. 33 A

Q. 34 B

Q. 35 B

Q. 36 B

Q. 37 A

Q. 38 C

Q. 39 A

Q. 40 B

Q. 41 D

Q. 42 A

Q. 43 C

Q. 44 B

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